Counterfeit pharmaceuticals may contain incorrect ingredients.
Counterfeit pharmaceuticals may not have a reliable amount of drug (sub potent).
Counterfeit pharmaceuticals may be ineffective in treatment of disease.
Counterfeit pharmaceuticals are often reliable substitutes for backordered drugs.
When controlled substances are disposed of, the DEA regulates that:
They are handled by the manufacturer upon return from the pharmacy.
A Form 41 is completed for documentation.
They are disposed of along with other outdated drugs, completing a Form 222 for the DEA for documentation.
They are disposed of by DEA-approved pharmacies only.
When a prescriber places an order into the hospital’s computer system, this is referred to as:
In order to prepare sterile compounds, the pharmacy technician gowns and washes hands in the:
According to federal law, prescriptions for methylphenidate must be kept on file for _____ year(s).
Overhead in a pharmacy:
Is the costs of all drugs.
Is the PBM reimbursements.
Includes rent and utilities.
Includes rent and utilities as well as salaries and equipment.
Medicare part __________ is the medical insurance.
Medicare part D:
Covers drugs and automatically includes part C.
Is a voluntary plan covering outpatient prescriptions.
Covers clinic and outpatient visits.
Is the federal health program covering the elderly.
Covers hospital healthcare.
Is the federally funded program for low-income Americans.
Is the federal- and state-funded program for low-income Americans.
__________ is the health benefit program for the Department of Defense.
A prescription for a controlled substance must contain the prescriber’s:
A prescription is written for a 2.5-mg tablet; the SIG states “iii weekly.” How many would be dispensed for a 1-month supply?
What agency regulates the registration and licensure of pharmacy technicians?
State Boards of Pharmacy
National Boards of Pharmacy
American Association of Pharmacy Technicians
Pharmacy Technician Certification Board
A patient has a prescription insurance policy that covers 80% of the cost; the patient pays the remaining 20%. This is an example of:
Medicare part B
A secured cabinet for dispensing and tracking medication use in an institutional setting is:
An e CSA
How many Tylenol® #3 tablets would be dispensed if the physician ordered XXIV?
On-line adjudication is the process of:
Submitting data to the PDMP
Verification of a DEA
Submitting prescriptions for payment
Verification of a wholesale order
A PBM works for the:
Epinephrine is a 1:10,000 dilution. How many milligrams of epinephrine would the patient get if he or she received 1 mL?
You are required to make 2 liters of a 0.25% sodium chloride solution using SWFI and normal saline. How many milliliters of normal saline do you need?
Schedule II narcotics traditionally could only be ordered with a DEA Form 222; now, they can be electronically ordered via:
From your wholesaler with the rest of your order
Prescription order for amoxicillin suspension 1 tsp BID for 10 days is presented in the pharmacy. What volume should be dispensed?
Ventolin HFA should be administered by which route?
Which drug listed below is an ACE inhibitor?
Which drug listed below is the same therapeutic classification as telmisartan?
A patient is to receive D5W using a 60 gtt/mL set at a rate of 25 mL/hr. What is the rate in gtt/min?
If a patient receives 7.5% dextrose at a rate of 100 mL/hr, how many grams of dextrose will the patient receive over 24 hours?
A patient has an order for 15 mg of citalopram daily. The patient has requested the liquid dosage formulation, which is available in a 10-mg/5-mL concentration. What volume will the patient take per dose?
All benzodiazepines are :
Schedule III drugs
Schedule IV drugs
Schedule V drugs
Not scheduled but need an alcohol warning
Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are:
Amiodarone and lidocaine
Which drug below is NOT a cephalosporin?
Which drug is an antiplatelet drug?
Which drug is an anticonvulsant?
Which drug is NOT an SSRI?
A patient using terbinafine is most likely treating:
A topical fungal infection
A topical bacterial infection
A prostaglandin used to treat glaucoma is:
A patient taking 40 mg of Crestor daily is most likely treating:
Type II diabetes mellitus
The common ending for beta-blockers is:
Serotonin (5-HT) receptor agonists (triptans) are used to treat:
An e-prescription decreases the potential for:
Which of the following steps in processing a prescription in a community pharmacy is the pharmacy technician allowed to do?
Create the label and affix it to the filled container.
Perform the final check.
Counsel the patient.
Verification of insurance information when a patient drops off a prescription:
Eliminates patient wait time.
Eliminates customer’s co-insurance.
Eliminates needlessly filling the prescription and transmitting to an expired insurance company.
Reduces need to verify with physician.
Which of the following medications is considered a high-alert drug?
What information is required on a prescription label?
Prescription serial number
A barcode on pharmaceutical products is encrypted with:
The chemical name of the drug
The brand name of the drug
How much medication will be dispensed during a typical cart fill in an institutional pharmacy?
Which drug would include a warning about grapefruit juice?
Which medication must a Type I diabetes mellitus patient be prescribed?
Many drugs have more than one use. Neurontin was originally approved as an anticonvulsant and is now commonly prescribed for:
How much of a 20% stock solution would be needed to make 480 mL of a 10% dilution?
Which antibiotic has to be dispensed with a medication guide because of the risk of tendon rupture?
Which drug is indicated for insomnia?
In what proportion would a 50% cream be mixed with a 10% cream to make a 20% cream?
Which is NOT part of a continuous quality improvement process?
Terminate employees responsible for medication errors.
Analyze variables causing errors.
Review procedures and educate staff.
Implement plans to improve processes and measure results.
A medication order is normally processed in:
A community pharmacy
A chain pharmacy
An acute care hospital
A mail-order pharmacy
How many refills can a prescriber legally order for fentanyl patches?
11 in 12 months
What agency defines good compounding practices?
State Boards of Pharmacy
Universal precautions help protect patients and healthcare professionals from what common blood-borne pathogen?
The middle set of numbers in the NDC indicate the:
Type of packaging
Convert 0.05% to a ratio.
Convert 1:10,000 to a percent.
A patient needs 50 mg of lidocaine. The stock is 2% w/v. How many milliliters will the patient need?
Your pharmacy has a computer system that maintains a perpetual inventory with minimum and maximum stock levels for all the inventory. Once an order is received, what is the next step the technician should take to maintain the integrity of future orders?
Update all prices.
Enter the quantity received.
Enter quantity of all backordered drugs.
Your hospital pharmacy’s formulary fills orders for any proton pump inhibitor with pantoprazole. Which drug would be substituted based on this policy?
The anesthesiologist has requested a 3% cocaine solution. How much cocaine will you need to prepare 30 mL?
A 20-kg child is prescribed amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses for 10 days. Amoxicillin is available in a 250-mg/5-mL concentration. What is the volume for each dose, and how much should be dispensed?
200 mg; 200 mL
5 mL; 100 mL
200 mg; 100 mL
5 mL; 200 mL
A patient has a prescription order for Cleocin® 75 mg/mL; SIG: 450 mg PO QID x 5 days. What volume should the patient take per dose?
If a patient takes ¾ tsp of an antibiotic TID. How long will 150 mL last if the patient takes it all?
2.5 L of TPN solution is ordered to run over 24 hours. What is the rate in mL/hr?
Directions on a vial of medication state “add 12.5 mL of diluent to make a 500-mg/mL dilution with a volume of 15 mL.” How much drug is in the vial?
An inhaler contains 200-metered doses. If the patient is to use 2 puffs QID, how many days will the inhaler last?
A patient has a prescription for Mobic®. Which drug on the patient’s profile should be stopped to prevent drug duplication?
Which inhaler listed below would be considered a “maintenance” inhaler?
How often does the DEA require an inventory to be completed for all controlled substances?
Every 6 months
Every 5 years
__________ provides specific guidelines for nonsterile compounding.
__________ provides specific guidelines for sterile compounding.
Patients taking thalidomide must register with _____ to protect patient safety.
For which medication listed below might the insurance company limit the number of tablets dispensed per 30 days because it is not recommended for daily use?
What is the proper way to write alprazolam five tenths milligram to prevent a medication error?
What is legally required on all prescriptions?
Indication for use
The maximum inventory for a drug used in the treatment of cancer is 20 vials of 400 mg with a minimum level of 10 vials. You need all but 2 vials today. The drug is available in packages of 10 vials of 400 mg and 10 vials of 150 mg. How many vials should be ordered?
8 vials of 400 mg
10 vials of 400 mg
20 vials of 400 mg
10 vials of 150 mg
The drug Zofran® is used to:
Prevent nausea and vomiting.
Prevent organ transplant reject.
Treat rheumatoid arthritis.
Prevent deep vein thrombosis.
The __________ is used to look up approved drugs and bioequivalent generics.
If you have to mix a KCl infusion with 35 mEq of KCl using a vial of KCl with 40 mEq/20 mL, how much do you need to add?
Which DEA number would be valid for Dr. Maxine Smith?
If a patient is taking an antitussive, he or she is treating:
A productive cough
A dry non-productive cough
Why would patients take pantoprazole?
They have GERD.
They suffer from depression.
They have high cholesterol.
They have insomnia.
Calculate the flow rate for 1 liter of IV fluid to run over 12 hours using a set calibrated to deliver 10 gt/mL.
75 mg of a drug is ordered in 250 mL of fluid to infuse at 2 mcg/kg/min for a patient weighing 150 lb. Calculate the flow rate in mL/hr.
If a patient takes furosemide daily, he or she may need to:
Increase their chloride intake.
Eat more foods rich in calcium.
Increase their potassium intake by eating foods high in potassium or take potassium supplements.
All of the above.
If you add 15 g of coal tar to one pound of 5% coal tar, what is the percent strength of the final product?
If a medication is ordered at 5 mg/kg/day for a 65-lb. patient, how many grams will the patient receive if he or she receives the medication for 10 days?
Ciprofloxacin is a __________ antibiotic.
If an order states that a medication is to be given at 1800 hours, this would be:
Which is the BEST option for a prescription label for: “Amoxicillin 400/5 Sig: 600 mg po BID X 10 days”?
Take 600 mg by mouth twice a day for 10 days.
Take 7.5 mL by mouth twice a day for 10 days.
Take 1 teaspoonful twice a day for 10 days.
Take 1½ teaspoonful by mouth daily for 10 days.
You are asked to make 2 oz. of a solution containing 15 mg/5 mL. Your stock is a concentration of 5 mg/mL. How much drug and how much diluent do you need?
36 mL of drug; 24 mL of diluent
24 mL of drug; 36 mL of diluent
90 mL of drug; 40 mL of diluent
40 mL of drug; 90 mL of diluent
Which drug is not a calcium-channel blocker?
A patient requests a refill for her little pink water pills. Which drug from her profile would you choose?
Levothyroxine 200 mg
Diazepam 2 mg
Propranolol 10 mg
Hydrochlothiazide 25 mg
Which drug would be considered a high-alert/high-risk medication that requires special attention when dispensed and administered to prevent serious adverse events?
Which medication should be dispensed it its original brown glass container?
Digoxin 0.125-mg tablets
Plavix® 75-mg tablets
Colchicine 0.6-mg tablets
Nitroglycerine 0.4-mg tablets
When must the pharmacy notify patients about a drug recall?
For Class I recalls
For Class II recalls
For Class III recalls
Never; the drug manufacturer must notify patients
An insurance card has a BIN number and a PCN number. These numbers provide information for:
The clinic; they contain the patient’s EHR information
Filling the medication
On line adjudication
A fill list is used by a technician:
To process orders to the wholesaler.
To process the daily cart fill.
To compound sterile products.
To refill crash carts or trays.
When should a patient profile be updated on a community pharmacy?
Annually; on the patient’s birthday.
EHR eliminates the need to update the profile.
Every time the patient gets a prescription filled.
Only when the pharmacy updates their software.
All chemicals in the pharmacy must have documentation that details the characteristics of the chemicals and outlines procedures for accidental human exposure. What is this documentation called?
Policy and Procedure Manual
MSDS or SDS
What auxiliary label(s) should be affixed to a prescription vial containing amoxicillin suspension?
“Finish All Medication.”
“Take with Food.”
“May cause DROWSINESS.”
A and B only.
A, B, and C.
The Methamphetamine Act of 2005 restricts sales of:
“Morning after” contraceptives
Cold preparations to children under 2
A patient brings in a new prescription for Paxil.® Which drug on the patient’s profile should he or she stop taking because it would duplicate the new therapy?
Which drug below is a beta-blocker?
You only have 10 g of HC powder available in the pharmacy, and you have an order for 5% HC ointment. How much can you make?