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PRACTICE EXAM 2

Choose the best answer for each of the following.

  1. Choose the false statement.
    1. Counterfeit pharmaceuticals may contain incorrect ingredients.
    2. Counterfeit pharmaceuticals may not have a reliable amount of drug (sub potent).
    3. Counterfeit pharmaceuticals may be ineffective in treatment of disease.
    4. Counterfeit pharmaceuticals are often reliable substitutes for backordered drugs.
  2. When controlled substances are disposed of, the DEA regulates that:
    1. They are handled by the manufacturer upon return from the pharmacy.
    2. A Form 41 is completed for documentation.
    3. They are disposed of along with other outdated drugs, completing a Form 222 for the DEA for documentation.
    4. They are disposed of by DEA-approved pharmacies only.
  3. When a prescriber places an order into the hospital’s computer system, this is referred to as:
    1. CSOS
    2. eMAR
    3. COPE
    4. PHI
  4. In order to prepare sterile compounds, the pharmacy technician gowns and washes hands in the:
    1. LAFW
    2. Ante area
    3. Buffer area
    4. Inpatient pharmacy
  5. According to federal law, prescriptions for methylphenidate must be kept on file for _____ year(s).
    1. 7
    2. 5
    3. 2
    4. 1
  6. Overhead in a pharmacy:
    1. Is the costs of all drugs.
    2. Is the PBM reimbursements.
    3. Includes rent and utilities.
    4. Includes rent and utilities as well as salaries and equipment.
  7. Medicare part __________ is the medical insurance.
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
  8. Medicare part D:
    1. Covers drugs and automatically includes part C.
    2. Is a voluntary plan covering outpatient prescriptions.
    3. Covers clinic and outpatient visits.
    4. Is required.
  9. Medicaid:
    1. Is the federal health program covering the elderly.
    2. Covers hospital healthcare.
    3. Is the federally funded program for low-income Americans.
    4. Is the federal- and state-funded program for low-income Americans.
  10. __________ is the health benefit program for the Department of Defense.
    1. Corum
    2. Amicore
    3. Tricare
    4. Medicare
  11. A prescription for a controlled substance must contain the prescriber’s:
    1. Home address
    2. Birth date
    3. DEA number
    4. BIN number
  12. A prescription is written for a 2.5-mg tablet; the SIG states “iii weekly.” How many would be dispensed for a 1-month supply?
    1. 30 tablets
    2. 90 tablets
    3. 60 tablets
    4. 12 tablets
  13. What agency regulates the registration and licensure of pharmacy technicians?
    1. State Boards of Pharmacy
    2. National Boards of Pharmacy
    3. American Association of Pharmacy Technicians
    4. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board
  14. A patient has a prescription insurance policy that covers 80% of the cost; the patient pays the remaining 20%. This is an example of:
    1. Coinsurance
    2. Copayment
    3. A deductible
    4. Medicare part B
  15. A secured cabinet for dispensing and tracking medication use in an institutional setting is:
    1. An ADC
    2. A CPOE
    3. An eMAR
    4. An e CSA
  16. How many Tylenol® #3 tablets would be dispensed if the physician ordered XXIV?
    1. 25
    2. 26
    3. 24
    4. 30
  17. On-line adjudication is the process of:
    1. Submitting data to the PDMP
    2. Verification of a DEA
    3. Submitting prescriptions for payment
    4. Verification of a wholesale order
  18. A PBM works for the:
    1. Patient
    2. Provider
    3. Pharmacy
    4. Insurance company
  19. Epinephrine is a 1:10,000 dilution. How many milligrams of epinephrine would the patient get if he or she received 1 mL?
    1. 0.001 mg
    2. 0.01 mg
    3. 0.1 mg
    4. 1 mg
  20. You are required to make 2 liters of a 0.25% sodium chloride solution using SWFI and normal saline. How many milliliters of normal saline do you need?
    1. 450 mL
    2. 555.5 mL
    3. 1444.5 mL
    4. 750 mL
  21. Schedule II narcotics traditionally could only be ordered with a DEA Form 222; now, they can be electronically ordered via:
    1. PBM
    2. CPOE
    3. CSOS
    4. From your wholesaler with the rest of your order
  22. Prescription order for amoxicillin suspension 1 tsp BID for 10 days is presented in the pharmacy. What volume should be dispensed?
    1. 75 mL
    2. 100 mL
    3. 150 mL
    4. 200 mL
  23. Ventolin HFA should be administered by which route?
    1. SL
    2. PO
    3. PR
    4. IM
  24. Which drug listed below is an ACE inhibitor?
    1. Cardizem®
    2. Benicar®
    3. Altace®
    4. Cozaar®
  25. Which drug listed below is the same therapeutic classification as telmisartan?
    1. Avapro®
    2. Altace®
    3. Trandolapril
    4. Atenolol®
  26. A patient is to receive D5W using a 60 gtt/mL set at a rate of 25 mL/hr. What is the rate in gtt/min?
    1. 15 gtt/min
    2. 25 gtt/min
    3. 50 gtt/min
    4. 250 gtt/min
  27. If a patient receives 7.5% dextrose at a rate of 100 mL/hr, how many grams of dextrose will the patient receive over 24 hours?
    1. 7.5 g
    2. 750 g
    3. 18 g
    4. 180 g
  28. A patient has an order for 15 mg of citalopram daily. The patient has requested the liquid dosage formulation, which is available in a 10-mg/5-mL concentration. What volume will the patient take per dose?
    1. 15 mg
    2. 5 mL
    3. 7.5 mL
    4. 75 mL
  29. All benzodiazepines are :
    1. Schedule III drugs
    2. Schedule IV drugs
    3. Schedule V drugs
    4. Not scheduled but need an alcohol warning
  30. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are:
    1. Calcium-channel blockers
    2. High-alert drugs
    3. Amiodarone and lidocaine
    4. Beta-blockers
  31. Which drug below is NOT a cephalosporin?
    1. Biaxin®
    2. Ceclor®
    3. Maxipime
    4. Rocephin
  32. Which drug is an antiplatelet drug?
    1. Ticlid®
    2. Warfarin
    3. Xarelto
    4. Levenox
  33. Which drug is an anticonvulsant?
    1. Cymbalta®
    2. Effexor®
    3. Risperidone
    4. Gabapentin
  34. Which drug is NOT an SSRI?
    1. Venlafaxine
    2. Paroxetine
    3. Trazodone
    4. Citalopram
  35. A patient using terbinafine is most likely treating:
    1. Diarrhea
    2. A topical fungal infection
    3. Herpes
    4. A topical bacterial infection
  36. A prostaglandin used to treat glaucoma is:
    1. Lanoprost®
    2. Trusopt®
    3. Pilocarpine®
    4. Timoptic®
  37. A patient taking 40 mg of Crestor daily is most likely treating:
    1. Type II diabetes mellitus
    2. HIV-AIDS
    3. High cholesterol
    4. Depression
  38. The common ending for beta-blockers is:
    1. “pril”
    2. “sartan”
    3. “epam”
    4. “olol”
  39. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor agonists (triptans) are used to treat:
    1. Depression
    2. Migraine HA
    3. Anxiety
    4. ADHD
  40. An e-prescription decreases the potential for:
    1. Rejection
    2. Lawsuits
    3. Forgeries
    4. Noncompliance
  41. Which of the following steps in processing a prescription in a community pharmacy is the pharmacy technician allowed to do?
    1. Over-ride warnings.
    2. Create the label and affix it to the filled container.
    3. Perform the final check.
    4. Counsel the patient.
  42. Verification of insurance information when a patient drops off a prescription:
    1. Eliminates patient wait time.
    2. Eliminates customer’s co-insurance.
    3. Eliminates needlessly filling the prescription and transmitting to an expired insurance company.
    4. Reduces need to verify with physician.
  43. Which of the following medications is considered a high-alert drug?
    1. Insulin
    2. Eszopiclone
    3. Adderall®
    4. Amlodipine
  44. What information is required on a prescription label?
    1. Provider DEA
    2. Patient address
    3. Drug manufacturer
    4. Prescription serial number
  45. A barcode on pharmaceutical products is encrypted with:
    1. The chemical name of the drug
    2. The brand name of the drug
    3. MSD information
    4. NDC number
  46. How much medication will be dispensed during a typical cart fill in an institutional pharmacy?
    1. 24 hours
    2. 36 hours
    3. 5 days
    4. 1 dose
  47. Which drug would include a warning about grapefruit juice?
    1. Ramipril
    2. Propranolol
    3. Pravastatin
    4. Ranitidine
  48. Which medication must a Type I diabetes mellitus patient be prescribed?
    1. Glyburide
    2. Liraglutidine
    3. Glipizide
    4. Insulin
  49. Many drugs have more than one use. Neurontin was originally approved as an anticonvulsant and is now commonly prescribed for:
    1. Depression
    2. Migraine HA
    3. Pain management
    4. Hypertension
  50. How much of a 20% stock solution would be needed to make 480 mL of a 10% dilution?
    1. 48 mL
    2. 240 mL
    3. 120 mL
    4. 100 mL
  51. Which antibiotic has to be dispensed with a medication guide because of the risk of tendon rupture?
    1. Augmentin
    2. Tetracycline
    3. Cephalexin
    4. Levofloxacin
  52. Which drug is indicated for insomnia?
    1. Esomeprazole
    2. Eszopiclone
    3. Ecitalopram
    4. Diazepam
  53. In what proportion would a 50% cream be mixed with a 10% cream to make a 20% cream?
    1. 3:1
    2. 1:3
    3. 3:4
    4. 1:4
  54. Which is NOT part of a continuous quality improvement process?
    1. Terminate employees responsible for medication errors.
    2. Analyze variables causing errors.
    3. Review procedures and educate staff.
    4. Implement plans to improve processes and measure results.
  55. A medication order is normally processed in:
    1. A community pharmacy
    2. A chain pharmacy
    3. An acute care hospital
    4. A mail-order pharmacy
  56. How many refills can a prescriber legally order for fentanyl patches?
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 5
    4. 11 in 12 months
  57. What agency defines good compounding practices?
    1. FDA
    2. State Boards of Pharmacy
    3. USP
    4. DEA
  58. Universal precautions help protect patients and healthcare professionals from what common blood-borne pathogen?
    1. Common cold
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Hepatitis B
    4. Pneumonia
  59. The middle set of numbers in the NDC indicate the:
    1. Manufacturer
    2. Drug
    3. Package size
    4. Type of packaging
  60. Convert 0.05% to a ratio.
    1. 0.05:1000
    2. 1:0.005
    3. 1:200
    4. 1:2000
  61. Convert 1:10,000 to a percent.
    1. 1%
    2. 0.1%
    3. 0.01%
    4. 0.001%
  62. A patient needs 50 mg of lidocaine. The stock is 2% w/v. How many milliliters will the patient need?
    1. 2.5 mL
    2. 25 mL
    3. 0.25 mL
    4. 1 mL
  63. Your pharmacy has a computer system that maintains a perpetual inventory with minimum and maximum stock levels for all the inventory. Once an order is received, what is the next step the technician should take to maintain the integrity of future orders?
    1. Rotate stock.
    2. Update all prices.
    3. Enter the quantity received.
    4. Enter quantity of all backordered drugs.
  64. Your hospital pharmacy’s formulary fills orders for any proton pump inhibitor with pantoprazole. Which drug would be substituted based on this policy?
    1. Ranitidine
    2. Pravastatin
    3. Pioglitazone
    4. Esomeprazole
  65. The anesthesiologist has requested a 3% cocaine solution. How much cocaine will you need to prepare 30 mL?
    1. 3 g
    2. 0.9 mg
    3. 900 mg
    4. 300 mg
  66. A 20-kg child is prescribed amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses for 10 days. Amoxicillin is available in a 250-mg/5-mL concentration. What is the volume for each dose, and how much should be dispensed?
    1. 200 mg; 200 mL
    2. 5 mL; 100 mL
    3. 200 mg; 100 mL
    4. 5 mL; 200 mL
  67. A patient has a prescription order for Cleocin® 75 mg/mL; SIG: 450 mg PO QID x 5 days. What volume should the patient take per dose?
    1. 450 mg
    2. 5 mL
    3. 10 mL
    4. 6 mL
  68. If a patient takes ¾ tsp of an antibiotic TID. How long will 150 mL last if the patient takes it all?
    1. 13 days
    2. 10 days
    3. 7 days
    4. 15 days
  69. 2.5 L of TPN solution is ordered to run over 24 hours. What is the rate in mL/hr?
    1. 100 mL/hr
    2. 104 mL/hr
    3. 25 mL/hr
    4. 250 mL/hr
  70. Directions on a vial of medication state “add 12.5 mL of diluent to make a 500-mg/mL dilution with a volume of 15 mL.” How much drug is in the vial?
    1. 100 mg
    2. 7500 mg
    3. 6250 mg
    4. 1 g
  71. An inhaler contains 200-metered doses. If the patient is to use 2 puffs QID, how many days will the inhaler last?
    1. 20 days
    2. 25 days
    3. 30 days
    4. 50 days
  72. A patient has a prescription for Mobic®. Which drug on the patient’s profile should be stopped to prevent drug duplication?
    1. Celexa®
    2. Diovan® HCT
    3. Ibuprofen
    4. Amliodipine
  73. Which inhaler listed below would be considered a “maintenance” inhaler?
    1. ProAir® HFA
    2. Ventolin
    3. Flovent®
    4. Xopenex® HFA
  74. How often does the DEA require an inventory to be completed for all controlled substances?
    1. Biennially
    2. Annually
    3. Every 6 months
    4. Every 5 years
  75. __________ provides specific guidelines for nonsterile compounding.
    1. FDA
    2. <797>
    3. <823>
    4. <795>
  76. __________ provides specific guidelines for sterile compounding.
    1. FDA
    2. <797>
    3. <823>
    4. <795>
  77. Patients taking thalidomide must register with _____ to protect patient safety.
    1. ISMP
    2. FDA
    3. STEPS
    4. IPLEDGE
  78. For which medication listed below might the insurance company limit the number of tablets dispensed per 30 days because it is not recommended for daily use?
    1. Valsartan
    2. Zolmitriptan
    3. Rosuvastatin
    4. Glyburide
  79. What is the proper way to write alprazolam five tenths milligram to prevent a medication error?
    1. 5 mg
    2. .5 mg
    3. 0.5 mg
    4. 0.005 mg
  80. What is legally required on all prescriptions?
    1. Refill information
    2. Indication for use
    3. Date written
    4. Manufacturer
  81. The maximum inventory for a drug used in the treatment of cancer is 20 vials of 400 mg with a minimum level of 10 vials. You need all but 2 vials today. The drug is available in packages of 10 vials of 400 mg and 10 vials of 150 mg. How many vials should be ordered?
    1. 8 vials of 400 mg
    2. 10 vials of 400 mg
    3. 20 vials of 400 mg
    4. 10 vials of 150 mg
  82. The drug Zofran® is used to:
    1. Prevent nausea and vomiting.
    2. Prevent organ transplant reject.
    3. Treat rheumatoid arthritis.
    4. Prevent deep vein thrombosis.
  83. The __________ is used to look up approved drugs and bioequivalent generics.
    1. Blue Book
    2. Red Book
    3. Orange Book
    4. PDR
  84. If you have to mix a KCl infusion with 35 mEq of KCl using a vial of KCl with 40 mEq/20 mL, how much do you need to add?
    1. 3.5 mL
    2. 12.5 mL
    3. 17.5 mL
    4. 20 mL
  85. Which DEA number would be valid for Dr. Maxine Smith?
    1. AM 4561937
    2. AS 4561937
    3. BM 4561936
    4. BS 4561933
  86. If a patient is taking an antitussive, he or she is treating:
    1. An allergy
    2. A productive cough
    3. A dry non-productive cough
    4. Congestion
  87. Why would patients take pantoprazole?
    1. They have GERD.
    2. They suffer from depression.
    3. They have high cholesterol.
    4. They have insomnia.
  88. Calculate the flow rate for 1 liter of IV fluid to run over 12 hours using a set calibrated to deliver 10 gt/mL.
    1. 7 gtt/min
    2. 13 gtt/min
    3. 14 gtt/min
    4. 833 gtt/min
  89. 75 mg of a drug is ordered in 250 mL of fluid to infuse at 2 mcg/kg/min for a patient weighing 150 lb. Calculate the flow rate in mL/hr.
    1. 2 mL/hr
    2. 20 mL/hr
    3. 27 mL/hr
    4. 200 mL/hr
  90. If a patient takes furosemide daily, he or she may need to:
    1. Increase their chloride intake.
    2. Eat more foods rich in calcium.
    3. Increase their potassium intake by eating foods high in potassium or take potassium supplements.
    4. All of the above.
  91. If you add 15 g of coal tar to one pound of 5% coal tar, what is the percent strength of the final product?
    1. 3.8%
    2. 5%
    3. 8%
    4. 126%
  92. If a medication is ordered at 5 mg/kg/day for a 65-lb. patient, how many grams will the patient receive if he or she receives the medication for 10 days?
    1. 1,477 g
    2. 1.477 g
    3. 14.77 g
    4. 0.1478g
  93. Ciprofloxacin is a __________ antibiotic.
    1. Penicillin
    2. Cephalosporin
    3. Fluoroquinolone
    4. Macrolide
  94. If an order states that a medication is to be given at 1800 hours, this would be:
    1. 4 PM
    2. 5 PM
    3. 6 PM
    4. 8 PM
  95. Which is the BEST option for a prescription label for: “Amoxicillin 400/5 Sig: 600 mg po BID X 10 days”?
    1. Take 600 mg by mouth twice a day for 10 days.
    2. Take 7.5 mL by mouth twice a day for 10 days.
    3. Take 1 teaspoonful twice a day for 10 days.
    4. Take 1½ teaspoonful by mouth daily for 10 days.
  96. You are asked to make 2 oz. of a solution containing 15 mg/5 mL. Your stock is a concentration of 5 mg/mL. How much drug and how much diluent do you need?
    1. 36 mL of drug; 24 mL of diluent
    2. 24 mL of drug; 36 mL of diluent
    3. 90 mL of drug; 40 mL of diluent
    4. 40 mL of drug; 90 mL of diluent
  97. Which drug is not a calcium-channel blocker?
    1. Amlodipine
    2. Diltiazem
    3. Verapamil
    4. Isosorbide
  98. A patient requests a refill for her little pink water pills. Which drug from her profile would you choose?
    1. Levothyroxine 200 mg
    2. Diazepam 2 mg
    3. Propranolol 10 mg
    4. Hydrochlothiazide 25 mg
  99. Which drug would be considered a high-alert/high-risk medication that requires special attention when dispensed and administered to prevent serious adverse events?
    1. Diazepam
    2. Buspirone
    3. Heparin
    4. Isoniazid
  100. Which medication should be dispensed it its original brown glass container?
    1. Digoxin 0.125-mg tablets
    2. Plavix® 75-mg tablets
    3. Colchicine 0.6-mg tablets
    4. Nitroglycerine 0.4-mg tablets
  101. When must the pharmacy notify patients about a drug recall?
    1. For Class I recalls
    2. For Class II recalls
    3. For Class III recalls
    4. Never; the drug manufacturer must notify patients
  102. An insurance card has a BIN number and a PCN number. These numbers provide information for:
    1. The clinic; they contain the patient’s EHR information
    2. Demographic information
    3. Filling the medication
    4. On line adjudication
  103. A fill list is used by a technician:
    1. To process orders to the wholesaler.
    2. To process the daily cart fill.
    3. To compound sterile products.
    4. To refill crash carts or trays.
  104. When should a patient profile be updated on a community pharmacy?
    1. Annually; on the patient’s birthday.
    2. EHR eliminates the need to update the profile.
    3. Every time the patient gets a prescription filled.
    4. Only when the pharmacy updates their software.
  105. All chemicals in the pharmacy must have documentation that details the characteristics of the chemicals and outlines procedures for accidental human exposure. What is this documentation called?
    1. PPI
    2. Policy and Procedure Manual
    3. MSDS or SDS
    4. OSHA Manual
  106. What auxiliary label(s) should be affixed to a prescription vial containing amoxicillin suspension?
    1. “Shake Well.”
    2. “Finish All Medication.”
    3. “Take with Food.”
    4. “May cause DROWSINESS.”
    5. A and B only.
    6. A, B, and C.
  107. The Methamphetamine Act of 2005 restricts sales of:
    1. Dextromethorphan
    2. Pseudoephedrine
    3. “Morning after” contraceptives
    4. Cold preparations to children under 2
  108. A patient brings in a new prescription for Paxil.® Which drug on the patient’s profile should he or she stop taking because it would duplicate the new therapy?
    1. Prozac®
    2. Pantoprazole
    3. Flomax®
    4. Valsartan
  109. Which drug below is a beta-blocker?
    1. Inderal®
    2. Amlodipine
    3. Prazosin
    4. Benazepril
  110. You only have 10 g of HC powder available in the pharmacy, and you have an order for 5% HC ointment. How much can you make?
    1. 0.5 g
    2. 50 g
    3. 200 g
    4. 20 g

ANSWERS FOR PRACTICE EXAM 2

  1. d
  2. b
  3. c
  4. b
  5. c
  6. d
  7. b
  8. b
  9. d
  10. c
  11. c
  12. d
  13. a
  14. a
  15. a
  16. c
  17. c
  18. d
  19. c
  20. b
  21. c
  22. b
  23. b
  24. c
  25. a
  26. b
  27. d
  28. c
  29. b
  30. d
  31. a
  32. a
  33. d
  34. c
  35. b
  36. a
  37. c
  38. d
  39. b
  40. c
  41. b
  42. c
  43. a
  44. d
  45. d
  46. a
  47. c
  48. d
  49. c
  50. b
  51. d
  52. b
  53. b
  54. a
  55. c
  56. a
  57. c
  58. c
  59. b
  60. d
  61. c
  62. a
  63. c
  64. d
  65. c
  66. d
  67. d
  68. a
  69. b
  70. b
  71. b
  72. c
  73. c
  74. a
  75. d
  76. b
  77. c
  78. b
  79. c
  80. c
  81. b
  82. a
  83. c
  84. c
  85. b
  86. c
  87. a
  88. c
  89. c
  90. c
  91. c
  92. b
  93. c
  94. c
  95. b
  96. a
  97. d
  98. d
  99. c
  100. d
  101. a
  102. d
  103. b
  104. c
  105. c
  106. e
  107. b
  108. a
  109. a
  110. c

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