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PRACTICE EXAM 1

Choose the best answer for each of the following.

  1. Prior authorization requires the:
    1. Insurance company to receive a new prescription order from the provider.
    2. Member pharmacy to get approval from the prescriber to dispense a nonformulary drug.
    3. Physician to seek approval from the insurance company to prescribe a specific medication.
    4. Patient to get approval from the insurance company to fill a prescription order for a specific medication.
  2. Which dosage form is considered enteral?
    1. PO tablet
    2. Suppository
    3. IM injection
    4. IVPB antibiotic
  3. According to the CSA, which drug listed below is a C-II substance?
    1. Diazepam
    2. Tylenol® elixir with codeine
    3. Vicodin®
    4. Atomoxetine
  4. If a patient takes 112 mcg of levothyroxine daily for 3 months, how many grams have they ingested?
    1. 10.08
    2. 0.01
    3. 1.08
    4. 100.8
  5. Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription vial containing metronidazole?
    1. “Do not drink alcohol.”
    2. “Take with food.”
    3. “Do not take within 4 hours of dairy products.”
    4. “Caution; may be habit-forming.”
  6. Ritalin® is to methylphenidate as Vyvanse® is to:
    1. Dextroamphetamine
    2. Lisdexamfetamine
    3. Dexlanosoprazole
    4. Lenalidomide
  7. The NDC number is used to identify drug products. Which set of digits identifies the specific drug?
    1. The third set
    2. The middle set
    3. The first set
    4. Need all three to identify the drug
  8. What is the function of the DEA? It is to:
    1. Enforce the FDA amendments.
    2. Enforce the CSA.
    3. Resolve OSHA complaints.
    4. Accredit pharmacy programs.
  9. XXIV is equal to:
    1. 26
    2. 25
    3. 24
    4. 23
  10. A patient receives 90 tablets of a drug and is ordered to take 3 tablets every morning and 2 tablets every evening. How many days’ supply does the patient have?
    1. 18
    2. 30
    3. 60
    4. 45
  11. Laminar flow hoods should be cleaned:
    1. Not be cleaned—HEPA filter takes care of everything
    2. Top to bottom and back to front
    3. Bottom to top and back to front
    4. Front to back and top to bottom
  12. A patient receives a prescription for an ophthalmic suspension. Which auxiliary label should be affixed to the container?
    1. “Use in EARS.”
    2. “Use in EARS” and Shake Well.
    3. “Use in EYES.”
    4. “Use in EYES” and Shake Well.
  13. What is the maximum number of refills allowed for Lyrica®?
    1. 6 times in 5 months
    2. May be refilled 11 times in 12 months
    3. 5 times in 6 months
    4. 1 time only
  14. What instrument is used for trituration?
    1. Spatula and ointment slab
    2. Hot plate and stir rod
    3. Electronic balance and conical
    4. Mortar and pestle
  15. According to federal law, prescriptions for C-II substances are to be kept on file in the pharmacy for:
    1. 1 year
    2. 2 years
    3. 5 years
    4. 10 years
  16. What piece of information is not required on a medication order?
    1. Patient name
    2. Prescriber information
    3. Drug name and strength
    4. Insurance information
  17. Information that is generally not found in a patient’s profile in an outpatient pharmacy includes which of the following?
    1. Preferences regarding child-resistant packaging
    2. Date of birth
    3. Preferred hospital
    4. Prescription and refill history
    5. Allergies
  18. According to USP <797>, personnel must wash fingers, hands, wrists, and arms up to the elbow for:
    1. 30 seconds
    2. 1 minute
    3. 2 minutes
    4. 3 minutes
  19. Which FDA recall is the most severe?
    1. Class I
    2. Class II
    3. Class III
    4. Class IV
  20. Which drug listed below is the same therapeutic class as Diovan®?
    1. Cymbalta®
    2. Lotensin®
    3. Coreg®
    4. Benicar®
  21. The generic name for Lipitor® is:
    1. Simvastatin
    2. Atorvastatin
    3. Pravastatin
    4. Rosuvastatin
  22. Escitalopram is used for:
    1. Noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
    2. Hypertension
    3. Depression
    4. Cholesterol
  23. Aleve is to naproxen as Mobic® is to:
    1. Celecoxib
    2. Citalopram
    3. Ibuprofen
    4. Meloxicam
  24. The common ending for prostaglandin analog drugs is:
    1. “mab”
    2. “statin”
    3. “prost”
    4. “olol”
  25. Vicodin® is a narcotic analgesic containing:
    1. Hydrocodone and acetaminophen
    2. Hydrocodone and aspirin
    3. Oxycodone and acetaminophen
    4. Oxycodone and aspirin
  26. Which statement below is false?
    1. All suspensions must be shaken.
    2. Otic products may be used opthalmically.
    3. Elixirs contain alcohol.
    4. Solutions contain drug that is completely dissolved.
  27. Medicare part _____ covers prescription drugs.
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
  28. Pyrogens are:
    1. Unwanted particulate matter present in parenteral products.
    2. Remnants of bacteria that may cause a fever.
    3. Beakers used on a hot plate for compounding.
    4. Substances that cause an allergic reaction.
  29. A “buffer” room, as defined by USP <797>, is a:
    1. Room where the primary engineering controls are sterile as aseptic compounding takes place there.
    2. Segregated compounding area with a positive pressure and an ISO of 7 or 8.
    3. Room reserved for non-aseptic activity.
    4. Room reserved for hand hygiene.
  30. Betamethasone 0.1% cream is dispensed in a 4-oz tube (120 g). How much betamethasone is in the tube?
    1. 12 g
    2. 12 mg
    3. 0.12 g
    4. 12 g
  31. A prescription asks for 60 g of lidocaine® 4% (w/w) ointment. How much lidocaine powder must be weighed for this product?
    1. 24 mg
    2. 2.4 g
    3. 240 mg
    4. 240 g
  32. An alcohol solution is labeled 10% v/v. How much alcohol is in 200 mL of this solution?
    1. 20 mL
    2. 2 mL
    3. 200 mL
    4. 10 mL
  33. Using 2.25-g sodium chloride tablets, how many would be needed to prepare 500 mL of a 0.45% sodium chloride solution?
    1. 1 tablet
    2. 10 tablets
    3. ½ tablet
    4. 5 tablets
  34. The ____________________ develops the formulary for an institutional pharmacy.
    1. Policy and Procedure Committee
    2. Pharmaceutics Committee
    3. Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
    4. Quality Control Committee
  35. Express the following in reduced form: 3/4 + 7/8
    1. 13/8
    2. 2
    3. 1 3/8
    4. 1.5
    5. 1 5/8
  36. A child is to be treated with 50 milligrams (mg) of a particular drug per kilograms (kg) of body weight. If the child weighs 38 lbs., what is the dose of the drug that should be administered? (Round to the nearest 5 mg.)
    1. 430 mg
    2. 865 mg
    3. 1200 mg
    4. 1655 mg
    5. 1900 mg
  37. Using the information from the previous question, how much would be needed to provide the correct dose if the drug concentration is 100 mg per milliliter (mL)?
    1. 4.3 mL
    2. 8.65 mL
    3. 12 mL
    4. 16.55 mL
    5. 19 mL
  38. What is quality control?
    1. A final check to ensure safety and quality of the preparation.
    2. Something done only by the pharmacist.
    3. Something accomplished by comparing the finished product with pictures of what it should look like.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of the above.
  39. Which of the following is false concerning the drug-receiving process in a pharmacy?
    1. It is not necessary to verify the number of boxes delivered.
    2. Each item should be carefully checked to make sure it is the correct drug and correct strength.
    3. Expiration dating should be checked so that short-dated products can be returned.
    4. Controlled substances require additional record-keeping steps.
    5. The person who checked-in the order should sign the invoice or packing slip.
  40. A patient is supposed to take 375 mg of an antibiotic 3 times daily for 10 days. The pharmacy dispenses 250 mg per 5 mL suspension. How much must the patient take per dose?
    1. 3.75 mL
    2. 5 mL
    3. 7.5 mL
    4. 8.75 mL
    5. 10 mL
  41. Using the information from the previous question, how much should the pharmacy dispense for the full 10-day supply?
    1. 100 mL
    2. 150 mL
    3. 200 mL
    4. 225 mL
    5. 300 mL
  42. Which statement below is FALSE?
    1. A LAFW should not be turned off.
    2. If a LAFW is turned off, it should run for a minimum of 30 minutes before use.
    3. If a LAFW is turned off, it should run for a minimum of 60 minutes before use.
    4. A LAFW should be tested every 6 months by qualified personnel.
  43. High-risk sterile compounds made from nonsterile ingredients:
    1. Have a beyond-use date of 48 hours at room temperature.
    2. Have a beyond-use date of 30 hours at room temperature.
    3. Have a beyond-use date of 24 hours at room temperature.
    4. Must be used immediately.
  44. Base components of a TPN include:
    1. Multivitamins and dextrose
    2. Electrolytes, dextrose, and amino acids
    3. Dextrose, lipids, and electrolytes
    4. Dextrose, amino acids, water, and sometimes fat
  45. Hazardous drugs have three categories. Category 3 includes:
    1. Antineoplastic drugs
    2. Non-antineoplastic drugs
    3. Medication that interferes with reproduction
    4. All REMS drugs
  46. Compounding an extemporaneous formulating master formulation record is:
    1. An individual record that is followed each time the preparation is compounded.
    2. Completed each time the preparation is made.
    3. Contains the prescription number and duplicate labels.
    4. Contains the beyond-use date for each particular compound.
  47. Geometric dilution is the process of:
    1. Reducing particle size in a mortar pestle.
    2. Reducing particle size into a paste.
    3. Uniformly mixing ingredients with a wide discrepancy of amounts.
    4. Adding electrolytes to a TPN.
  48. Which dosage indication listed below would help reduce the chance of a medication error?
    1. 5.0 mg
    2. 2 µ
    3. 0.5 mg
    4. .5 g
  49. ISMP has listed several classes of drugs as high-alert medications. Which drug listed below would NOT be a high-alert medication?
    1. Heparin
    2. Potassium chloride injection
    3. Methotrexate
    4. Sildenafil
  50. To ensure that a verbal order is processed correctly, the recipient of the order should:
    1. Repeat back, then write the order down.
    2. Repeat back, enter the order into the computer, then write it down.
    3. Write it down, then enter it into the computer.
    4. Write it down, then repeat back.
  51. The purpose of TALL man lettering is to:
    1. Identify medications associated with serious adverse reactions.
    2. Distinguish between two drugs with similar-looking or -sounding names.
    3. Highlight the generic name of a drug.
    4. Identify the drug class.
  52. A PBM sets quantity limits to optimize economic performance; this is defined as:
    1. Only utilizing formulary drugs.
    2. Setting maximum days of therapy amounts.
    3. Requiring 30 days of first-line drugs to be used first.
    4. Requiring mail-order pharmacies to be used for patients to get 3 months of a drug.
  53. A 1-oz. tube of OTC hydrocortisone (0.5%) cream contains:
    1. 15 mg of hydrocortisone
    2. 150 mg of hydrocortisone
    3. 0.15 mg of hydrocortisone
    4. 30 mg of hydrocortisone
  54. The four steps of pharmacokinetics are:
    1. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
    2. Absorption, distribution, migration, and enzyme action
    3. Absolution, dissolution, metabolism, and excretion
    4. Absorption, dissolution, metabolism, and excretion
  55. The Methamphetamine Act of 2005 allows customers to purchase:
    1. 9 g of pseudoephedrine per day
    2. 3.6 g of pseudoephedrine per day
    3. Only 60-mg tablets of pseudoephedrine
    4. Only 30-mg tablets of pseudoephedrine
  56. A company seeking to manufacture a generic drug must apply to the:
    1. FDA for a NDA
    2. FDA for a ANDA
    3. DEA for a NDA
    4. DEA for a ANDA
  57. __________ defined a legend drug.
    1. Durham Humphrey Amendment
    2. Kefauver Harris Amendment
    3. Sherley Amendment
    4. Hatch-Waxman Amendment
  58. Sandy Sue has a prescription for YAZ. She should receive a patient package insert:
    1. Upon request
    2. With her original prescription fill
    3. Every time her prescription is filled
    4. Only if the doctor ordered it
  59. HIPAA:
    1. Allows for disclosure of PHI for patient care.
    2. Allows for disclosure of PHI upon a patient’s death.
    3. Allows for disclosure of PHI to a spouse.
    4. Never allows for disclosure of PHI.
  60. Laminar flow workbenches need to be certified:
    1. Every 2 years
    2. Every 6 months
    3. Every 3 months
    4. Monthly
  61. The first set of numbers in an NDC number identifies the __________ of the drug.
    1. Manufacturer
    2. Dosage formulation
    3. Strength
    4. Package size
  62. Prime vendor contracts have several advantages including timely ordering and delivery, overall simplification of credits and returns, and:
    1. Product availability from a single manufacturer
    2. No POs, but additional documentation
    3. Advantages associated with ordering
    4. Fewer inventory carrying costs and product availability from different manufacturers
  63. Stock rotation is the process of:
    1. Placing newly received products behind all other products on the shelf.
    2. Returning outdated products.
    3. Filling the ADC with products as they are received.
    4. Inventory recycling.
  64. When referring to a “par level,” this means:
    1. The maximum allowable # of doses allowed on the shelf.
    2. The minimum allowable # of doses allowed on the shelf.
    3. Just-in-time inventory control.
    4. Within a standard range (minimums and maximums).
  65. Which group listed below grants technicians the “right” to practice either by registration or licensure?
    1. PTCB
    2. NABP
    3. ECEPT
    4. State Boards of Pharmacy
  66. A prescription order reads 1 tab QID, AC and at bedtime. What instructions should be on the prescription label?
    1. Take 1 tablet 4 times a day before meals and at bedtime.
    2. Take 1 tablet 4 times a day, after meals and at bedtime.
    3. Take 1 tablet before meals 4 times a day and 1 tablet at bedtime.
    4. Take 1 tablet 3 times a day before meals.
  67. A patient is to take 1 teaspoonful of suspension TID. How many days will a 4-oz. bottle last?
    1. 8 days
    2. 12 days
    3. 4 days
    4. 10 days
  68. Which drug listed below is NOT an SSRI?
    1. Trazodone
    2. Escitalopram
    3. Celexa®
    4. Paroxetine
  69. Which pair of drugs listed below are anticonvulsants?
    1. Gabapentin and pregabalin
    2. Escitalopram and topiramate
    3. Bupropion and lamotrigine
    4. Diazepam and alprazolam
  70. The online processing of an insurance claim to determine payment is called a(n):
    1. Deductible
    2. Co-pay
    3. Adjudication
    4. Co-insurance
  71. Which of the following is an ARB (angiotensin II receptor blocker)?
    1. Valsartan
    2. Famotidine
    3. Diltiazem
    4. Lisinopril
  72. Which of the following dosage forms bypass the digestive tract?
    1. Elixir
    2. Ointment
    3. Oral capsule
    4. Suspension
  73. Which category of drugs has the characteristic ending “–olol”?
    1. Loop diuretics
    2. ACE inhibitors
    3. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
    4. Beta-blockers
    5. None of the above
  74. Which question should be referred to a pharmacist?
    1. “Who manufactures Lovenox®?”
    2. “How much codeine is in one Tylenol #3® tablet?”
    3. “What is the difference in price between brand name Valium® 10-mg tablets and the generic version?”
    4. “If I am allergic to penicillin, is it safe for me to take erythromycin?”
  75. If you are asked to prepare an IV fluid with 2 g of magnesium sulfate using a solution with 500 mg of magnesium sulfate per mL, how many mL do you need?
    1. 1.25 mL
    2. 2 mL
    3. 3.5 mL
    4. 4 mL
    5. 5 mL
  76. Which question should be referred to a pharmacist?
    1. “What is the brand name of Zoloft®?”
    2. “Should amoxicillin suspension be kept in the refrigerator?”
    3. “What is the usual dose of ciprofloxacin?”
    4. “How many milliliters are in a teaspoonful?”
    5. “Is Zertec® available over the counter?”
  77. If you have to make 100 mL of a 10% w/v solution from water and a 90% w/v solution, how much of the 90% solution do you need to use?
    1. 9 mL
    2. 10 mL
    3. 11 mL
    4. 12 mL
    5. None of the above
  78. If a drug is ordered “one pc & at bedtime” and 40 capsules are dispensed, what is the estimated days’ supply?
    1. 10
    2. 12
    3. 15
    4. 40
  79. How many grams of hydrocortisone would be required to make 1 lb. of a 5% ointment?
    1. 2.27 g
    2. 3 g
    3. 5 g
    4. 22.7 g
    5. 90.8 g
  80. Convert 180 lb to kg.
    1. 81.8 kg
    2. 100 kg
    3. 120 kg
    4. 396 kg
  81. You receive a prescription for erythromycin suspension 400 mg/5 mL. Dispense 100 mL. The Sig: reads __________ tsp QID until all the medication is taken. If the dose of erythromycin is given as 40 mg/kg/day and your patient weighs 44 lbs., what should the amount in the signa be?
    1. 2 teaspoonsful
    2. 1 teaspoonful
    3. ½ teaspoonful
    4. 800 mg
  82. The prescription reads hydrocortisone ointment 20 g 0.5%. Sig: Apply to eye. How many grams of 2% ophthalmic hydrocortisone ointment and how many grams of ophthalmic diluent should be used in compounding the prescription?
    1. 15 g of hydrocortisone; 5 g of diluent
    2. 5 g of hydrocortisone; 15 g diluent
    3. 1 g of hydrocortisone; 19 g of diluent
    4. 19 g of hydrocortisone; 1 g diluent
  83. A prescription for prednisone reads: “Take 5 tablets BID for 5 days, then take 5 tablets daily for 5 days, then take 4 tablets BID for 5 days; then take 4 tablets daily for 5 days, then take 3 tablets daily for 5 days, then take 2 tablets daily for 5 days, then day 1 tablet daily for 10 days. How many tablets should be dispensed?
    1. 140 tablets
    2. 160 tablets
    3. 170 tablets
    4. 180 tablets
  84. A patient takes levothyrodine 0.25 mg daily. How many micrograms should the patient take over 2 weeks’ time?
    1. 3.5 mcg
    2. 250 mcg
    3. 1750 mcg
    4. 3500 mcg
  85. A prescription is delivered to the pharmacy for cefuroxime 250 mg/5 mL. The patient is ordered to receive 200 mg per dose twice a day for 7 days. How many milliliters will be dispensed, and how many milliliters will the patient take per dose?
    1. 84 mL; 12 mL
    2. 56 mL; 4 mL
    3. 28 mL; 4 mL
    4. 8 mL; 4 mL
  86. Convert 126 lbs. to kg.
    1. 60 kg
    2. 300 kg
    3. 57.3 kg
    4. 277.2 kg
  87. You are asked to prepare a 10% solution using 10 g of a powder that occupies 14 mL. How much diluent will you add?
    1. 100 mL
    2. 86 mL
    3. 14 mL
    4. 90 mL
  88. If you add 8.8 mL of diluent to a 2-g vial with a concentration of 200 mg/mL, what would the final percent solution be?
    1. 10%
    2. 20%
    3. 2%
    4. 5%
  89. You are asked to prepare 30 mL of a 200-mcg/mL folic acid solution. The stock solution is 5 mg/mL. How much folic acid and how much diluent do you need?
    1. 0.4-mL folic acid; 29.6-mL diluent
    2. 1.2-mL folic acid; 28.8-mL diluent
    3. 2-mL folic acid, 28-mL diluent
    4. 6-mL folic acid; 24-mL diluent
  90. A patient has an order for cephalexin oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL; SIG 500 mg QID for 1 day, then 250 mg QID for a total of 10 days. How many milliliters will the patient need to complete the course of therapy?
    1. 150 mL
    2. 200 mL
    3. 220 mL
    4. 240 mL
  91. How many milligrams of drug are in 1 oz. of a 2.5% solution?
    1. 0.75 mg
    2. 1.5 mg
    3. 750 mg
    4. 1500 mg
  92. A liter of IV fluid is ordered to be infused over 6 hours with a 20 drop set. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
    1. 56 gtt/min
    2. 50 gtt/min
    3. 17 gtt/min
    4. 5 gtt/min
  93. Penicillin has been prescribed for a child at 5000 units/kg PO q 6 h. The child weighs 75 lbs. Penicillin is available in a suspension with a concentration of 100,000 units/mL. How much should be dispensed for a 10-day course of therapy?
    1. 17 mL
    2. 6.8 mL
    3. 68 mL
    4. 125 mL
  94. An IV solution has a concentration of 123 mg/250 mL. It is to be administered at the rate of 200 mcg/min. What is the flow rate in mL/hr?
    1. 19.5 mL/hr
    2. 20 mL/hr
    3. 12 mL hr
    4. 24 mL/hr
  95. The term weight in volume (w/v) refers to the number of:
    1. Milligrams of drug per 100 mL of final solution
    2. Milligrams of drug per liter of final solution
    3. Grams per 100 mL of final solution
    4. Grams per liter of final solution
  96. How many grams of coal tar should be added to 1 lb. of zinc oxide paste to prepare an ointment containing 5% coal tar?
    1. 0.8 g
    2. 22.8 g
    3. 23.9 g
    4. 38.9 g
  97. How many milliliters of water must you add to 500 mL of a 10% stock solution of sodium chloride to make a batch of normal saline?
    1. 5555 mL
    2. 5055 mL
    3. 11,111 mL
    4. 10,611 mL
  98. Dexamethasone is available in a 20-mg/mL concentration in a 20-mL vial. You are ordered to make a 5-mg/mL dilution of dexamethasone. How much diluent will you add?
    1. 80 mL
    2. 60 mL
    3. 20 mL
    4. 10 mL
  99. A patient has an order for prednisone 5-mg tablets: 30 mg tonight, 10 mg PO BID days x 2 days, 10 mg daily for 2 days, then 5-mg tablets for 2 days, then stop. How many tablets should you dispense?
    1. 5 tablets
    2. 10 tablets
    3. 20 tablets
    4. 25 tablets
  100. If a patient is ordered to inject 22 units of U-100 insulin each morning, how many days will a 10-mL vial last?
    1. 5 days
    2. 31 days
    3. 35 days
    4. 45 days
  101. USP <800> covers:
    1. All sterile compounding
    2. All nonsterile compounding
    3. Compounding of hazardous drugs
    4. Community pharmacy manufacturing
  102. A patient needs 500 mg of an antibiotic BID for 2 weeks. How many 500-mg tablets do you dispense?
    1. 30
    2. 20
    3. 14
    4. 28
  103. Aseptic technique is the process of manipulating sterile products to prevent :
    1. Introduction of inactive ingredients
    2. Unnecessary handling
    3. Introduction of pathogens
    4. Unnecessary cost
  104. A medication is ordered Q 4 h, and the first dose is given at 6 AM. When will the next 2 doses be given?
    1. 1200, 1800
    2. 10,00, 1400
    3. 0800, 1200
    4. 0900, 1300
  105. You are compounding a pediatric suspension using 25-mg tablets. The order is for a 1 mg/5mL concentration. The patient is to take 1½ tea- spoonfuls PO BID and ordered to have a 30-day supply. How many tablets will you have to crush to get the correct amount of drug?
    1. 4 tablets
    2. 3 tablets
    3. 2 tablets
    4. 1 tablet
  106. What is the brand name for duloxetine?
    1. Colerys®
    2. Cymbalta®
    3. Strattera®
    4. Allegra®
  107. Abilify® is a(n):
    1. Antidiabetic
    2. Antidepressant
    3. Antibiotic
    4. Antipsychotic
  108. A category of drug on the ISMP high-alert medication list is:
    1. Antithrombitic
    2. Corticosteroid
    3. ARBs
    4. Antihistamines
  109. Augmentin® belongs to which antibiotic family?
    1. Tetracyclines
    2. Penicillins
    3. Macrolides
    4. Fluroquinalones
  110. The pharmacy received a notice for a Class II recall for fentanyl patches. What is the first step the pharmacy technician should take?
    1. Isolate all the recalled lot numbers.
    2. File the notice.
    3. Prepare a list of patients to contact.
    4. Return all the fentanyl in stock to the manufacturer.

ANSWERS FOR PRACTICE EXAM 1

  1. c
  2. a
  3. c
  4. b
  5. a
  6. b
  7. b
  8. b
  9. c
  10. a
  11. c
  12. d
  13. c
  14. d
  15. b
  16. d
  17. c
  18. a
  19. a
  20. d
  21. b
  22. c
  23. d
  24. c
  25. a
  26. b
  27. d
  28. b
  29. a
  30. c
  31. b
  32. a
  33. a
  34. c
  35. e
  36. b
  37. b
  38. a
  39. a
  40. c
  41. d
  42. c
  43. c
  44. d
  45. c
  46. a
  47. c
  48. c
  49. d
  50. d
  51. b
  52. b
  53. b
  54. a
  55. b
  56. b
  57. a
  58. c
  59. a
  60. b
  61. a
  62. d
  63. a
  64. d
  65. d
  66. a
  67. a
  68. a
  69. a
  70. c
  71. a
  72. b
  73. d
  74. d
  75. d
  76. c
  77. c
  78. a
  79. d
  80. a
  81. c
  82. b
  83. c
  84. d
  85. b
  86. c
  87. b
  88. b
  89. b
  90. d
  91. c
  92. a
  93. c
  94. d
  95. c
  96. c
  97. b
  98. b
  99. c
  100. d
  101. c
  102. d
  103. c
  104. a
  105. a
  106. b
  107. d
  108. a
  109. b
  110. a

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